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LLD101 Low Level Dueling in 1.12
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EMP
Joined: 26 May 2005 Posts: 628 BNet Acct/Realm: sequences (Ladder-USEast)
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 1:04 pm Post subject:
Mathematics Subject description: Talk about infinity. |
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When I was taught Algebra II, I learned that there are more irrational numbers than rational numbers; there are more whole numbers than natural numbers; there are more real numbers than irrational numbers, rational numbers, and so forth. At that time, it made sense, and I accepted it.
Now that I think about it, the sets of rational numbers and irrational numbers should equal because numbers stretch on infiniately. So, there are an infinite amount of rational numbers. Irrational numbers also have an infinite number of numbers because it can also stretch into the infinite scale by decimals. Am I correct? In essence, there are the same amount of numbers in irrational numbers and rational numbers.
What about whole numbers and natural numbers? Whole numbers include the number "0", a number that natural numbers does not include. So, the number of whole numbers is "infinite + 1" while the number of natural numbers is simply "infinite." But what is "infinite + 1"? If the numbers reach such a big value, then the 1 shouldn't even matter any more, right? So does the number of whole numbers equal the number of natural numbers?
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Goky
Joined: 18 Feb 2006 Posts: 1425
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 1:31 pm Post subject:
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Quote: | Irrational numbers also have an infinite number of numbers because it can also stretch into the infinite scale by decimals. |
Well, that is what irrational numbers do, yes. But even some rational numbers stretch on infinitely (such as 1/3).
Quote: | In essence, there are the same amount of numbers in irrational numbers and rational numbers. |
It's an easy misconception to make, really, since they both exist in infinite amounts, but think of it this way:
Imagine every integer between 1 and 10. There's 10 of them. Now, imagine every irrational number in between 1 and 10; there's an infinite amount of them. At any given range along the number line, there's infinitely more irrational numbers than there are integers. In this sense, even though it seems a bit illogical, (but it is if you really think about it), there are just far many more irrational numbers than there are integers.
The difference between rational and irrational infinities is a bit harder to explain, so I'll let someone else do it.
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B[x]
Joined: 04 May 2004 Posts: 6130 BNet Acct/Realm: Retired
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 1:47 pm Post subject:
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Goky wrote: | Imagine every integer between 1 and 10. There's 10 of them. |
There's eight of them.
I don't really care all that much about theoretical math like this so I don't have anything to say on the topic. As long as my numbers add up, that's all I need.
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Wank
Joined: 01 Nov 2005 Posts: 3329 BNet Acct/Realm: Imp StormsRaider
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 1:49 pm Post subject:
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Eh I'm in algebra II right now in my sophmoore year and we are going over that. Anyways, is there a reason why 2 negatives = a positive? Every time I ask my teacher they dont respond =.="
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Roy
My level 18s > yours
Joined: 14 Oct 2005 Posts: 5750
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 1:54 pm Post subject:
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(-a) * (-b) = (-1) * a * (-1) * b
= (-1)*(-1) * ab
= 1 * ab
= ab
Thus, (-a) * (-b) = ab -- in other words, two negatives equal a positive.
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Wank
Joined: 01 Nov 2005 Posts: 3329 BNet Acct/Realm: Imp StormsRaider
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 1:58 pm Post subject:
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I dont get it, I know that when you multiply a negative by a negative you get a positive, I just dont understand why.
P.S. I'm the kid in class that has 100 questions about everything
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Goky
Joined: 18 Feb 2006 Posts: 1425
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 2:00 pm Post subject:
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B[x] wrote: | Goky wrote: | Imagine every integer between 1 and 10. There's 10 of them. |
There's eight of them. |
[1, 10]. Pardon my mistake!
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EMP
Joined: 26 May 2005 Posts: 628 BNet Acct/Realm: sequences (Ladder-USEast)
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 2:31 pm Post subject:
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Imp wrote: | I dont get it, I know that when you multiply a negative by a negative you get a positive, I just dont understand why.
P.S. I'm the kid in class that has 100 questions about everything |
Come now children, lets not change the subject.
Quote: | (-a) * (-b) = (-1) * a * (-1) * b
= (-1)*(-1) * ab
= 1 * ab
= ab
Thus, (-a) * (-b) = ab -- in other words, two negatives equal a positive. |
You're multiplying -1 by -1, which does not really answer his question about multiplying a negative by a negative.
On topic, is it only the interval that will matter?
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Icanneverwin
Joined: 30 Apr 2004 Posts: 1715 BNet Acct/Realm: *Disc0nnect
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 3:51 pm Post subject:
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Heres one for you. I love this "1" heh.
where .9999999999(infinite) = 1
.999999(repeating) = x
Times both side by 10 so we get
9.99999(repeating) = 10x
since originally x = .999999(repeating)
just subtract x and/or .999999(repeating) on both sides and we get
9 = 9x
divide 9 by both sides and zomg x = 1 when it was originally .9999?!
Yes our 10 decimal system is screwed.
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Knifer
Joined: 05 Dec 2004 Posts: 1333 BNet Acct/Realm: Hawaii/Oregon
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 4:22 pm Post subject:
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you cant subract x, its being multiplied to 10
9.99999(repeating) = 10x
divide by x
9.99999(repeating) over x = 10
.999999(repeating) = x
10=10
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Goky
Joined: 18 Feb 2006 Posts: 1425
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 5:05 pm Post subject:
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You're both making it way too complicated.
(1/3) = 0.333333 (repeating)
0.3333333(repeating) x 3 = 0.99999 (repeating)
(1/3) x 3 = 1
Therefore, 0.99999 (repeating) = 1.
Imp wrote: | I dont get it, I know that when you multiply a negative by a negative you get a positive, I just dont understand why.
P.S. I'm the kid in class that has 100 questions about everything |
What rjg was trying to get across is that you factor out the -1's. A number multiplied by 1 is itself. A number time -1 would be it's negative self, just thinking in a purely logical sense. So, -1 x -1 would be -1 times itself (-1) and then "negatified", so it'd then be positive 1. Think of it like that, then look at his thing.
I hope you like my very precise mathematical notation, such as the word "negatified".
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Knifer
Joined: 05 Dec 2004 Posts: 1333 BNet Acct/Realm: Hawaii/Oregon
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 5:22 pm Post subject:
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Goky wrote: | You're both making it way too complicated.
(1/3) = 0.333333 (repeating)
0.3333333(repeating) x 3 = 0.99999 (repeating)
(1/3) x 3 = 1
Therefore, 0.99999 (repeating) = 1. |
lol YOU made it complicated. i was just showing him you dont subtract when its 10x.
you can just do
1/3 = 0.333 etc
2/3 = 0.666 etc
3/3 = 1
and its cause we use base 10.
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ATOMICMAN
Official LLD101 Drunkard
Joined: 01 Mar 2004 Posts: 2740 BNet Acct/Realm: *ATOMICMAN-LLD USEastNL Retired
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 5:26 pm Post subject:
Re: Mathematics Subject description: Talk about infinity. |
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EMP wrote: | Now that I think about it, the sets of rational numbers and irrational numbers should equal because numbers stretch on infiniately. So, there are an infinite amount of rational numbers. Irrational numbers also have an infinite number of numbers because it can also stretch into the infinite scale by decimals. Am I correct? In essence, there are the same amount of numbers in irrational numbers and rational numbers.
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i think of it more like this.
picture moving in a circle. you never stop, always moving. there is no beginning or end.
the difference between them isnt so much the total distance since you never stop but lets say the circles are different sizes around. you never stop but one just takes longer or shorter to go around.
this doesnt exactly apply but gives you a better idea about. anyway you look at it it's infinity just that each way is different.
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Goky
Joined: 18 Feb 2006 Posts: 1425
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Posted: Thu Aug 24, 2006 5:28 pm Post subject:
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Oh, I thought you were trying to use that as a standalone proof (on top of his but with the correct algebra) which is just sort of complicated way of going about everything. I wasn't trying to be rude.
Mine wasn't exactly complicated, considering the easiest way to make the connection for someone who doesn't know much about math is by using the fact that 1/3 = 0.3333 (repeating) which is a pretty well known thing.
But you can LOL if I really hurt your feelings or something.
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EMP
Joined: 26 May 2005 Posts: 628 BNet Acct/Realm: sequences (Ladder-USEast)
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Posted: Fri Aug 25, 2006 12:26 pm Post subject:
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Goky wrote: | Quote: | Irrational numbers also have an infinite number of numbers because it can also stretch into the infinite scale by decimals. |
Well, that is what irrational numbers do, yes. But even some rational numbers stretch on infinitely (such as 1/3).
Quote: | In essence, there are the same amount of numbers in irrational numbers and rational numbers. |
It's an easy misconception to make, really, since they both exist in infinite amounts, but think of it this way:
Imagine every integer between 1 and 10. There's 10 of them. Now, imagine every irrational number in between 1 and 10; there's an infinite amount of them. At any given range along the number line, there's infinitely more irrational numbers than there are integers. In this sense, even though it seems a bit illogical, (but it is if you really think about it), there are just far many more irrational numbers than there are integers.
The difference between rational and irrational infinities is a bit harder to explain, so I'll let someone else do it. |
So, technically, there are more irrational numbers than rational numbers. The only difference is that once the number of numbers reaches infinity, it does not matter anymore. But taking an interval is not ?fair?. It is like saying, from the interval of 0.99999(repeating) to 1.000?1, there is 1 integer, or rational number, and there are no irrational numbers. So in this scenario, the number of rational numbers is 1 and the number of irrational numbers is 0; thus there are more rational numbers that irrational numbers.
Again, that does not seem fair because the interval is so small. This goes with the interval between 1 and 10 because there are a limited number of integers in this set. To go pass this problem, the bounds must be increased to a large enough size so that it will be ?fair?, and the only concept I can apply here is the concept of infinity.
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